Arsenal, Chelsea, Manchester United and Newcastle United are very attentive over the situation of Barcelona forward Ansu Fati, according to Sport (page 5).
The 20-year-old is regarded as one of the best young talents from the La Masia academy, but he has struggled to nail down a starting role under manager Xavi this season.
Fati’s father recently expressed frustration over his son’s lack of chances. A summer departure could be a possibility if the forward continues to start on the bench.
It is now reported by Sport that his agent Jorge Mendes has been probing the market for months and believes there are some serious options for the highly-rated star.
The Premier League is highlighted as a possible destination for the player with Arsenal, Chelsea, United and Newcastle ‘very attentive’ over Fati ahead of the summer.
Fati has managed to stay injury free for almost the entire season, but he has registered just 1,338 minutes over 38 games. This constitutes only 35 minutes per appearance.
For a player of his potential, he needs more minutes. While he is happy to stay at Camp Nou, he could seriously consider his future if his situation does not improve.
The big question is whether he would get the desired game time with a switch to the Premier League.
Gabriel Martinelli and Marcus Rashford are undisputed starters for Arsenal and United on the left wing, respectively while Chelsea only recently signed Mykhailo Mudryk.
Mudryk arrived for a €100 million package from Shakhtar Donetsk in January. Manager Graham Potter’s priority should be on making him succeed.
This leaves Newcastle as the likely destination for Fati. The Magpies are on the up under their new Saudi owners but may need Champions League football to convince him.
Sport claim €35m would be a fair price for Fati’s exit amid Barcelona’s financial troubles.
However, we believe the fee could be much higher as the Catalan giants won’t give up on their graduate easily. He is contracted to them until the summer of 2027.